Concept of CWSN (Children with Special Needs) — Mastery

Q1. The term 'children with special needs' covers a wide range. Which of the following best captures that range?

• A. Only children with severe cognitive disability who need a special school.
• B. Only children with sensory impairments — hearing, visual and speech.
• C. From mild learning disability to severe cognitive disability, including sensory, locomotor and behavioural needs.
• D. Only children whose parents have applied for a disability certificate.

Q2. A Block Resource Coordinator asks teachers to record children's needs as 'difficulties' instead of 'disabilities', following the WHO suggestion. Under that framing, a child who cannot grasp a pencil and cannot move from desk to door would be recorded as having difficulty in

• A. Seeing
• B. Listening
• C. Communication
• D. Moving

Q3. Per the IQ-severity table, an IQ of 25 falls in which category of cognitive disability?

• A. Mild (50–75)
• B. Moderate (35–49)
• C. Severe (20–34)
• D. Profound (below 20)

Q4. Two Class 3 children — Arjun and Bina — both score below their classmates on a literacy test. Arjun's IQ is 70 and his intellectual milestones (speech, problem-solving) have always been visibly slower than peers. Bina's IQ is 105 but her reading and writing lag her speech. Which of the two best fits the description of 'cognitive disability'?

• A. Arjun only — sub-average IQ with slow intellectual development across functions.
• B. Bina only — because she shows clear academic lag in literacy.
• C. Both — because both are below grade level in literacy.
• D. Neither — both must have IQ below 50 to qualify.

Q5. Cognitive disability is defined as limitations in TWO domains. Which pair correctly names both?

• A. Vision and hearing
• B. Gross motor and fine motor
• C. Reading and writing
• D. Mental functioning and social skills (communication, self-care, social interaction)

Q6. Hereditary factors are estimated to account for approximately what share of all cases of deafness?

• A. Less than 10 per cent
• B. About 25 per cent
• C. About 50 per cent
• D. More than 90 per cent

Q7. Rohit, a Class 1 student, was born with a cleft palate. After surgery his hearing and IQ are normal, but he still has difficulty articulating clear speech. His primary impairment is best classified as

• A. Cognitive disability
• B. Hearing impairment
• C. Speech impairment caused by structural anomaly (cleft palate)
• D. Learning disability — dysgraphia

Q8. Spinal cord injury is grouped under locomotor impairments. Which of the following BEST explains why such an injury can cause paralysis or paresis below the injury site?

• A. It interrupts nerve signals between the brain and the body parts served by nerves below the injury.
• B. It directly weakens the bones of the limbs.
• C. It is hereditary and progressively damages joints.
• D. It causes a chromosomal abnormality in muscle tissue.

Q9. One frequently-cited cause of learning disabilities (dyslexia, dysgraphia, dyscalculia) is

• A. Vitamin A deficiency in the mother
• B. Lack of formal schooling before age 6
• C. Exposure to loud noises during infancy
• D. Heredity — learning disabilities tend to run in families

Q10. A primary teacher in Rampur asks why some children develop Emotional and Behavioural Disorders (EBD) without any obvious family or school trauma. The underlying biological causes the teacher should mention include

• A. Vitamin A deficiency and congenital cataract
• B. Spinal cord injury and muscular dystrophy
• C. Cleft palate and hereditary deafness
• D. Chemical imbalance in the body or brain injury

Q11. An Anganwadi worker in a Rampur ward observes a 2-year-old who shows continuous drooling well past the usual age, very stiff limbs when lifted, and does not follow objects with his eyes. This cluster falls on the

• A. List of typical developmental milestones — no concern
• B. Indicators of a mild speech impairment only — refer to a speech therapist
• C. List of signs of giftedness — needs an enrichment plan
• D. Warning-signs list for early childhood developmental delay — needs immediate referral

Q12. After the IEP is prepared, the teacher should implement the planned intervention for at least how long before judging whether it is working?

• A. About one day
• B. About one week
• C. A minimum of four weeks
• D. A minimum of one full academic year

Q13. The United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (UNCRPD) was opened for signature on

• A. 13 December 2006
• B. 30 March 2007
• C. 26 January 2008
• D. 3 December 2009

Q14. Consider the following statements about the 3% reservation under the Persons with Disabilities Act 1995: I. The 3% is divided into three 1% sub-shares — one each for blindness/low vision, hearing impairment, and locomotor disability/cerebral palsy. II. The 3% is given as a single quota that may go entirely to any one disability category. III. The same 1%-each principle applies to identified posts in government employment. Which of the statements is/are correct?

• A. Only I
• B. Only II
• C. Only I and III
• D. I, II and III

Q15. A teacher-trainee writes: 'The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Bill, 2011 was a citizen-led draft prepared by NALSAR University of Law and was intended to bring Indian law in line with the UNCRPD obligations India had taken on.' This statement is

• A. Wrong — the 2011 Bill was prepared by the Ministry of Home Affairs, not NALSAR.
• B. Wrong — the 2011 Bill had no link to UNCRPD.
• C. Correct — the unit cites the 2011 Bill as NALSAR-drafted and as a step to align Indian law with UNCRPD standards.
• D. Partly correct — NALSAR drafted it but it had nothing to do with UNCRPD.

Q16. CWSN need 'different goals and different methods' from their typical peers. The classroom implication of this for a primary teacher in Rampur is best captured by

• A. Setting the same termly target for every child and grading on a single scale.
• B. Differentiating learning goals and pedagogic methods so each child's special need is genuinely met, while keeping them in the regular class.
• C. Sending all CWSN to a separate special school after Grade 1.
• D. Holding the CWSN back in the same class until they catch up on the same curriculum.

Q17. Children with special needs are described as 'developing at a slower pace' than typical children. Which of the following classroom observations of a Class 1 child in Rampur best illustrates this indicator?

• A. A child who completes all classwork before the bell.
• B. A child whose developmental milestones (speaking in sentences, holding a pencil, following two-step instructions) are visibly behind grade-mates.
• C. A child who refuses to share lunch with peers.
• D. A child who prefers reading in the corridor instead of the classroom.

Q18. Which statement best distinguishes a Child With Special Needs (CWSN) from a typical child of the same age?

• A. A CWSN always has lower intelligence than a typical child.
• B. A CWSN can do nothing on his/her own and is permanently dependent.
• C. A CWSN needs help and assistance from others to meet needs that go beyond the ordinary — the typical child manages those needs without such help.
• D. A CWSN must always study in a separate classroom.

Q19. Rubella in the pregnant mother is cited as a cause under two different impairments. Which pair correctly names both?

• A. Cognitive disability (under infections and intoxication) AND hearing impairment (deafness in the unborn child).
• B. Locomotor impairment AND speech impairment.
• C. Visual impairment AND learning disability.
• D. Emotional and behavioural disorder AND multiple impairment.

Q20. Which of the following is listed among the major causes of visual impairment?

• A. Cleft palate
• B. Congenital cataract
• C. Spinal cord injury
• D. Muscular dystrophy

Q21. 'Emotional and Behavioural Disorders (EBD)' is best described as

• A. A narrow medical diagnosis covering only severe depression in children.
• B. A broad category covering a range of difficulties — building relationships, mood, inappropriate behaviour and physical symptoms of psychological origin.
• C. A type of learning disability such as dyslexia.
• D. A category restricted to children whose IQ is below 50.

Q22. Three Class 4 children show below-grade performance in reading. Aanya has IQ 60 with delays across all subjects since pre-primary. Bittu has IQ 110 and excellent oral expression but cannot decode written text, reversing 'b' and 'd'. Chitra has normal IQ and normal reading once she is happy, but for the last four months she has been pervasively sad and has frequent stomach-aches without medical cause. The best primary classifications respectively are

• A. All three — learning disability (dyslexia).
• B. Aanya — cognitive disability; Bittu — learning disability (dyslexia); Chitra — emotional and behavioural disorder (EBD).
• C. Aanya — EBD; Bittu — cognitive disability; Chitra — speech impairment.
• D. Aanya — visual impairment; Bittu — speech impairment; Chitra — locomotor impairment.

Q23. Early identification of CWSN in rural India works best when grassroots services are involved. Which of the following matches the unit's view?

• A. Only paediatricians in district hospitals can identify special needs early.
• B. Anganwadi workers under ICDS, being in daily contact with 0–6 year-olds, are well placed to spot warning signs and refer onward.
• C. Identification should wait until the child enters Class 1, since pre-school behaviour is unreliable.
• D. Parents alone — without trained workers — should decide if a child needs assessment.

Q24. The correct sequence a primary teacher in Rampur should follow once she notices warning signs in a child is

• A. Diagnose the disability herself → label the child → seat him in the back row.
• B. Fill the symptom-checklist screening form → refer the child to a team of specialists for formal assessment → prepare and implement an IEP for at least 4 weeks → review.
• C. Inform parents only and continue normal teaching, without any IEP.
• D. Skip screening and directly transfer the child to a special school.

Q25. The screening checklist for visual impairment includes which one of the following bodily cues?

• A. Speaks too loudly in class
• B. Tilts head or closes one eye while looking at the blackboard
• C. Drags one leg while walking
• D. Repeats the first syllable of words

Q26. Under the Persons with Disabilities Act 1995, 'blindness' is defined as a condition where a person suffers from any one of the following — except

• A. Total absence of sight
• B. Visual acuity not exceeding 6/60 or 20/200 (Snellen) in the better eye with corrective lenses
• C. Limitation of the field of vision subtending an angle of 20 degree or worse
• D. Mild myopia correctable with simple spectacles

Q27. A District Education Officer issues a circular saying that the State must take measures for annual screening of children at risk and ensure free, suitable education till age 18 for persons with disabilities. The circular is grounded in which of the following?

• A. POCSO Act 2012
• B. Right to Education Act 2009 alone, with no disability statute behind it
• C. Persons with Disabilities Act 1995 — annual screening of at-risk children and free education till age 18 are explicitly mandated.
• D. Mental Healthcare Act 2017

Q28. The Persons with Disabilities Act 1995 provides for which of the following statutory authorities at the Central level?

• A. A National Council for Educational Research and Training
• B. A Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities
• C. A National Human Rights Commission
• D. A National Commission for Protection of Child Rights

Q29. Consider the following statements about the certification thresholds in the context of the disability framework in India: I. 40% or more of any listed disability — certified by a medical authority — is the minimum threshold to be counted as a 'person with disability' under the Act. II. 80% or more of disability is conventionally treated as 'severe disability' for benefit-allocation purposes. III. A person below the 40% threshold is automatically entitled to the same reservation as a person above it. Which of the statements is/are correct?

• A. Only I
• B. Only I and II
• C. Only II and III
• D. I, II and III

Q30. A teacher-educator writes: 'The primary teacher is at the centre of a four-link chain — early identification by Anganwadi/teacher, screening by the teacher's checklist, formal assessment by a specialist team, and early intervention through an IEP plus speech, physical or occupational therapy. Together these convert the WHO impairment–disability–handicap framework from a labelling tool into a service-delivery plan grounded in the rights conferred by the PWD Act 1995 and UNCRPD.' This statement is best judged as

• A. Fully correct — it integrates the unit's identification chain, intervention services and rights framework exactly as presents them.
• B. Partly correct — the chain is right but UNCRPD has no role in early intervention.
• C. Wrong — the teacher has no role; only specialists conduct the entire process.
• D. Wrong — the WHO triad is only a labelling tool and is not connected to the PWD Act or UNCRPD.